Do you always pay 58k without asking for confirmation??
I only use marketplaces I trust and DAN is
(beside SEDO and DYNADOT) definitely one of them
(this doesn't mean that I do not trust other marketplaces (I just don't know them as I have not used them so far (as the mentioned 3 marketplaces are enough for my needs))).
So if I buy a domain name on such a marketplace
(means, as mentioned, on a marketplace I trust), I simply would follow their
(most probably automated) payment instructions without even thinking to first ask them
"if the domain name I bought is indeed available" (?) - in other words,
yes, I would simply make the payment - no matter the amount - simply because of my trust in the marketplace that they will handle it professionally.
However, if I get a message from the marketplace
before making the payment to not make the payment
(for whatver reason), then
of course I would not make the payment and simply wait for their update.
But if I get such a message from the marketplace
after I already made the payment, then I would
logically expect + insist (for) a full refund
without a single cent / peny / bit of a loss - no matter the reason of a possible loss (may it be exchange rate or bank fees or whatever), simply because
I got informed too late by the marketplace to not make the payment
(as I already made the payment).
To sum it up, if after my payment it turns out that the paid domain name is in fact not available at all, although
it was listed for purchase and
the marketplace did not inform me early enough (= before I make the payment) to not make the payment (for whatever reason), then I am convinced that
the marketplace has to take over = pay any possible fee or exchange rate that may have or will arise (for whatever reason and by whomever (bank / payment company)) within the refund process so that the exact same amount I originally paid will
RECEIVE and therefore
BE (BACK) IN my payment source.
Just like you have to return a car that you have borrowed to its owner undamaged.
If, unfortunately, a damage (fee(s) = loss) occurs on the way back to its owner, then logically the person who rented it has to pay the owner for this damage (fee(s) = loss) and not just return the damaged car (I am not saying that this is definitely the case here (as I don't know all facts), I just share my general view for such a case).