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Hi there, if anyone could give me any advice on this that would be great. I know lawyers are best, but thought someone might have some experience on the matter..
I'm talking about a situation in which the owner of a certain trademark, uses generics as part of their 'product range'\ online presence.
i.e. trademarked mytrademark.com, buys up some generic .eu's and does not redirect to mytrademark.com, instead uses the sites as one pagers. The generic words are used in association with 'mytrademark', the only time they are alone is in the address bar, i.e. generic.eu.
Would the use of a single generic address be justified? Would new trademarks need to be filed for 'mytrademark + generic'?
I understand that generics give you a certain amount of protection if you are using them literally, but It does get confusing, the idea that 'generics can't be trademarked' seems to have been disproven by so many large corporations over the years.
I'm talking about a situation in which the owner of a certain trademark, uses generics as part of their 'product range'\ online presence.
i.e. trademarked mytrademark.com, buys up some generic .eu's and does not redirect to mytrademark.com, instead uses the sites as one pagers. The generic words are used in association with 'mytrademark', the only time they are alone is in the address bar, i.e. generic.eu.
Would the use of a single generic address be justified? Would new trademarks need to be filed for 'mytrademark + generic'?
I understand that generics give you a certain amount of protection if you are using them literally, but It does get confusing, the idea that 'generics can't be trademarked' seems to have been disproven by so many large corporations over the years.
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