IDN question .

[evilopinions]

Say If own india.com (IDN)(I dont own it) and decide to sell it tomorrow .

Can the owner of original India.com (in true sense)come and claim the domain based on trademark ?

 

[Bramiozo]

If there is no confusing similarity between the versions (which is obviously not the case), if there's no trademark on that specific translation (with extension of course) and if you do not hold the domain in bad faith w.r.t. the owner of india.com, the answer is no.

india.com is obviously english and as such it serves a different market than the hindi version, say if you own staedte.de as a transliteration of städte.de, there might be confusion but that doesn't mean you automatically own städte.de, there was UDRP ruling on a similar case in favor of the IDN-holder.