I'm going to agree and disagree with the others here, and I'll state why.
Generally, domain names registered before their trademark-namesakes existed
can be protected against infringement claims. However, there are few limited
circumstances where a trademark holder can have a valid claim.
Take this scenario.
DebacleX registered wxyzdotcom and put PPC ads. I sell wxyz bowling balls.
A year later, I file an application at USPTO for wxyz bowling balls. After some
time, it gets approved.
I continue selling wxyz bowling balls, and DebacleX's wxyz domain will continue
to show PPC ads. We go our merry ways.
Then...
...six months later, DebacleX's wxyz PPC ads show those for...bowling balls. I
catch wind of it, believe he's intending that to profit from my mark, document
the whole thing, and file an infringement claim against DebacleX.
That's kinda what happened in the MySpace.co.uk dispute. MySpace won, but
it was eventually overturned...with some slight reservations.
However, don't let that dispute lead you to believe it'll turn out that way with
a similar one. These things are treated case and case, and they're not forced
to be consistent with one another.
With that said, I've met and encountered people who believe they're entitled
to something for whatever reason. Others can argue they're not, but that will
not always stop them from believing whatever they want to believe.
So to answer your question, Debacle, you can believe you're entitled towards
the domain name, while others obviously disagree. But unless you can prove
the "usual things" needed to show infringement and what not, then you won't
necessarily be able to get that domain name despite having a mark.
I can point out a few other exceptions, but I think you get the idea.