Hi All,
As I understand even if I own a domain name which is an exact match of some TM I can legally hold it as soon as I don't use it solely 'in bad faith' (to affect owner's repuation badly). I've recently come accross a case when a company could not get hold of a domain in court, even though it was its TM, can't give a link unfort., forgot where it was. Am I missing something?
As I understand even if I own a domain name which is an exact match of some TM I can legally hold it as soon as I don't use it solely 'in bad faith' (to affect owner's repuation badly). I've recently come accross a case when a company could not get hold of a domain in court, even though it was its TM, can't give a link unfort., forgot where it was. Am I missing something?








