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I was asked by a client (an individual, now ex client for non payment of bills) to source and register a .com domain name for him, this was over 5 years ago. He literally vanished off the map a few days after I registered this domain (which I paid for naturally expecting payment to follow, which never did). So I kept the domain in lieu of payment and automatically renewed it each year.
I have recently noticed that a company in the UK has opened a website with the exact same name, baring the extension, which is naturally .co.uk.
They have a registered UK trademark on their logo and have a limited company which was incorporated on the 26th June 2003.
They registered the .co.uk domain over 2 years ago, whereas I registered this .com over 5 years ago.
Now my question is this; can I infact write to them and offer the domain without fear of a lawsuit?
Thanks for your time and I appreciate your feedback.
I have recently noticed that a company in the UK has opened a website with the exact same name, baring the extension, which is naturally .co.uk.
They have a registered UK trademark on their logo and have a limited company which was incorporated on the 26th June 2003.
They registered the .co.uk domain over 2 years ago, whereas I registered this .com over 5 years ago.
Now my question is this; can I infact write to them and offer the domain without fear of a lawsuit?
Thanks for your time and I appreciate your feedback.








