- Impact
- 1,034
I'd like to know if I am protected under the "Reverse Domain Name Hijacking" Rule in the following situation:
1. I register an available domain name on let's say 1/1/06. There was no TM filed at that time for this name, and I knew of no product with this name.
2. Someone registers a TM with this domain name on 6/1/07.
3. This new TM owner says I owe him the name since he has the TM now, and it turns out, unknown to me earlier, that he actually began using the name (not in general usage - small market) on 1/1/05, a year before I registered the name.
Can I use the Reverse Domain Name Hijacking rule to keep my name? After all, he didn't bother to TM the name until years later, and he didn't try to purchase the available name earlier?
1. I register an available domain name on let's say 1/1/06. There was no TM filed at that time for this name, and I knew of no product with this name.
2. Someone registers a TM with this domain name on 6/1/07.
3. This new TM owner says I owe him the name since he has the TM now, and it turns out, unknown to me earlier, that he actually began using the name (not in general usage - small market) on 1/1/05, a year before I registered the name.
Can I use the Reverse Domain Name Hijacking rule to keep my name? After all, he didn't bother to TM the name until years later, and he didn't try to purchase the available name earlier?







