I'm not exactly sure how or whether my question has any legal standing or solution, so please consider this nothing but a hypothetical question.
Situation:
Domain is listed for sale via 1plus.net, potential buyer makes an offer, offer is accepted, 1plus.net emails both parties, revealing their email addresses to one another and also stating in their email that the offer and subsequent acceptance of the offer represents a legally binding contract.
1plus.net offers an optional escrow service but leaves it to the two parties to decide upon the method of payment.
Seller emails buyer with several methods to submit payment, explains each method in detail and attaches comparative costs to each method.
Buyer remains silent and doesn't get back to the seller.
Question 1: How long is the seller required, either per 1plus.net regulations, i couldn't find anything in the user agreement, or per good ethical business judgment, supposed to wait before the seller consider the offer void?
Question 2: is this sale indeed legally to enforce? If so, how and would the costs even be reasonable considering that the domain sold in the lower $x.xxx?
I'm trying to be as vague yet detailed as possible. (gotta love contradictions in the same sentence
)
Any help or ethical way pointers are appreciated!
Thanks,
IB
Situation:
Domain is listed for sale via 1plus.net, potential buyer makes an offer, offer is accepted, 1plus.net emails both parties, revealing their email addresses to one another and also stating in their email that the offer and subsequent acceptance of the offer represents a legally binding contract.
1plus.net offers an optional escrow service but leaves it to the two parties to decide upon the method of payment.
Seller emails buyer with several methods to submit payment, explains each method in detail and attaches comparative costs to each method.
Buyer remains silent and doesn't get back to the seller.
Question 1: How long is the seller required, either per 1plus.net regulations, i couldn't find anything in the user agreement, or per good ethical business judgment, supposed to wait before the seller consider the offer void?
Question 2: is this sale indeed legally to enforce? If so, how and would the costs even be reasonable considering that the domain sold in the lower $x.xxx?
I'm trying to be as vague yet detailed as possible. (gotta love contradictions in the same sentence
)Any help or ethical way pointers are appreciated!
Thanks,
IB
